MAILBAG. An anonymous reader responded to my earlier
question: "But tell us, please, why it is so self-evident that discriminating on the basis of race is always worse than discriminating based on geography, socioeconomic status, family history, &tc?"
First off, thanks for responding. I wish more of you would. (And I know now there are more of you, after the
How Appealing link. The email address is rule11-at-hotmail.com.)
Second, I'm going to try to excerpt his email without a) destroying his arguments or b) identifying him or leaking personal info.
THE QUESTION: What is so self-evident that discriminating on the basis of race is always worse than other forms of discrimination?
ANSWER #1: 1.
Because there isn't any such thing-in-the-world as a "race."
[What Anonymous was getting at is the difficulty that the university, or a court, would have if faced with a situation where a white person claimed to be black, or where a governmental unit disagreed with an individual about which racial classification they best fit in.]
I don't know how courts or organizations would evaluate a contested definition of an individual's race. But I think saying "there's no such thing as race" pushes it too far. Just because courts have difficulty with a question doesn't mean that there isn't a right answer. And even if there isn't a "right" answer, that doesn't mean that we shouldn't adopt a best-possible approximation by accepting whatever self-definition an individual adopts.
(The cheap response is to tell
James Byrd Jr.'s family that there is no such thing as race. I bet they would beg to differ).
ANSWER #2:
Because affirmative-action in education is not rationally related to the goal of remedying past government racial discrimination.
[Anonymous had three or four arguments underneath this. First, that
America's public grade and high schools have not discriminated against the racial minority groups who benefit from affirmative-action in higher eduction for more than 18 years. Second, that
[i]t cannot be rational to compensate one person for the suffering of another. Third, that UM's program is overly broad because, unlike what is sanctioned in Adarand, the university's policies
compensate those individuals through affirmative-action in college admissions who [didn't] suffer discrimination at the primary and secondary school levels [and whose parents did not]. Finally,
Michigan might have a legitimate government interest in remedying past discrimination in the Michigan public schools. So why do students from other states benefit from affirmative-action?]
To begin with, I don't think that
de jure segregation's disappearance before my lifetime means that the effects of that segregation aren't still being felt, and aren't still impacting otherwise "innocent" people (on any side). The past evils of segregation have not disappeared and I don't accept the premise that segregation affected only those in school districts that actively practiced it. By the same token, I think that the University of Michigan has a mandate to look at discrimination across the country (and remedy it, if possible) because it has been, for a long time, as much a national university as a state one. (Especially in the law school).
Finally, I don't see the problem with compensating (or even punishing people) absent fault or desert. We do it all the time in law.
See, e.g., strict liability in torts and insurance in general.
ANSWER #3:
Because it is ultra vires.
[For the folks at home,
ultra vires means "beyond power; transcends authority." Anonymous continues,
[w]hat arm of government is equipped to determine if [legitmate reasons for racial discrimination] exist?
He continues,
[c]an you imagine what would happen if the Michigan legislature began a debate about the number of points to be given to each ethnic group in U. of M. admissions? He then describes a pretty horrific scenario where legislators barter votes and policy based on how they determine who gets how much preference. And he also argues some sort of non-delegation doctrine, inasmuch as these decisions have largely happened out of sight of the legislature or the public.]
I think the easiest response for the question of political instability or race-pandering is that we've lived under
Bakke and its progeny--the UM systems--for 25 years without this, and I don't know why it would start now.
Also, I think saying that anything is
ultra vires our constitutional system is difficult. There are definitely things that the system discourages, strongly discourages, all-but-prohibits, &tc, but there are very, very few things that it prohibits outright. And I don't know why racial classifications, which have never fallen into the latter category, would be placed there now when they never have been before, especially in light of continuing need for narrowly-tailored, small-scope remedial efforts, at the very least.
ANSWER #4:
Because neither U. of M., nor any other university, has made any serious attempt to calculate the intensity of the preference.
[I confess I don't understand this argument entirely, so I'm just going to quote the provided explanation in its entirety:
10 points, 15, or 20? How many points does an African-American get? How many for a Latino? If the state were to calculate a preference to target diversity, wouldn't it have to figure out the level of benefit provided by different levels of diversity? How would the state go about doing that? How do you figure out the benefit to my education of the pigment of the boy sitting next to me? How would the state go about figuring out how many points to give based on past discrimination in education? Wouldn't it have to vary by where each student grew up? (By where their ancestors grew up?) What do either of these things have to do with giving an admissions bonus for skin color itself?]
I think you're demanding more from the system than it could give. And, frankly, more than it needs to give. I don't think that its necessary to calculate the exact benefits of diversity at a 20 points v. 15 points v. 25 points v. 10 points system; it's enough to say: we know that with this it works, without this it doesn't, and we'll protect it for all these other reasons. I'm not sure I ultimately understand this argument. If racial discrimination is truly, absolutely wrong, then it shouldn't matter whether we are really good at it or only sorta good at it, right?
ANSWER #5:
Because the country doesn't want it.
[
According to last week's CNN poll, 67% of the country is against bonuses in university admissions based on race. Ask yourself a question: In a democracy, why is it that every state (until recently) discriminated in a way that an overwhelming majority of every states' populace finds objectionable?]
I'm not going to argue, as some have, that the 14th Amendment mandates some form of affirmative action. By the same token, however, I'm not all that impressed with majoritarian arguments on this issue. If people feel really strongly about it, get them to pass laws/referrenda/&tc. like 209.
To answer his question about why affirmative action persists despite general disapproval: because polls measure people's views on an issue without really giving any sense at all of the intensity of those views. If people really were worked up about this, they would have done something about it (again, a la 209). They haven't thus far, and I think the simplest conclusion is that while many people are against it in the abstract, the vast majority of those don't care enough to formulate their political choices around it. If they do, they can outlaw it. But they haven't.
ANSWER #6:
Because racism is immoral.
[
Discrimination based on race is different than discrimination based on legacy. Do you think it should be unlawful to discriminate in favor of one's family in hiring? Do you think it should be lawful to discriminate in favor of one's racial group in hiring? Does that answer your question? He also writes:
I also don't think you, or the U. of C., honestly believes that past discrimination against African-Americans should be remedied at the expense of the children of non-white immigrants.]
Regarding family preferences in hiring: I can game out a few scenarios where it should be unlawful (depends how seriously we want to take our country's commitment to "merit"). But do I think we should go through the political and social disruption necessary to pursue that? No.
Regarding racial preferences in hiring: No, absent strict remedial necessity. But I would argue that education is different. To borrow a few
sentences, "[w]e must consider public education in the light of its full development and its present place in American life throughout the Nation . . .. Today, education is perhaps the most important function of state and local governments."
I would argue, briefly, that affirmative action is not the moral equivilent to Jim Crow in the context of education, and that legacy preferences are far worse. Why? Among other reasons:
1) Legacy preferences in admission act only to reward the success of the parents and to support a system that is biased against people who aren't white, male and rich. I can't think of a worse use of education, morally speaking, than continuing to support those that "have" at the expense of those who don't. The great power of the American education system is its force as an equalizer (
see, e.g., the GI Bill), and legacy preferences (esp. those focused on the rich-donor subset of alums) cuts directly against that.
2) I figure that affirmative action isn't the same thing, morally speaking, as Jim Crow because its intent, means and results are different, and I don't know how else to judge something morally than by looking at its intent, means, and results.
The intent of Jim Crow was to denigrate and destroy the civil, political and social standing of an entire race. I say 'destroy,' but truth is, 'prevent from attaining' is probably more accurate. The intent of affirmative action is to ensure that the remaining ill effects of Jim Crow (and, in fairness, its Northern equivilents) are wiped out. I just don't see how those intents can be equated.
As for means: a lot of Jim Crow laws took in account people's race (but see, e.g., grandfather clauses, poll taxes, &tc), so does affirmative action. But the ill effects of affirmative action on those it "targets" are much, much less than those of Jim Crow. I don't know what the statistics are (or even if anyone has studied) about what happens to the "victims" of affirmative action, but I do know as a baseline they aren't prohibited from attending any school (or even any school of quality). Best case scenario is they go to some other good school, just not the one they really wanted to go to. Worst case scenario is they don't get into any school at all and their lives are destroyed. But I don't see evidence of that happening.
As for ends: the end of affirmative action is ensuring a diverse society where the benefits are distributed across racial lines . The ends of Jim Crow was the continuation of the Confederacy. Not even in the same universe.
(You'll notice I focus mostly on goals/means/ends writ large, because I think the moral case for/against affirmative action transcends what benefits it brings to the campus itself. But obviously there are those to consider as well.)
As for complaints about other minority and immigrant groups being shut out of UM's program:
I agree; I think the most troublesome part of affirmative action is the classifying of who gets the benefits, writ large. I'm still thinking/working my way through this. The best I can offer you now goes something like this: the treatment of African and Native Americans is
sui generis in our society and in our law. As bad, and I mean really, really bad, as our treatment of Asian-Americans, Hispanic-Americans, and other ethnic groups has been, it doesn't reach the level of 350 years of institutionalized disparagement. And there also appears to be some evidence that our society, as a whole, has done a better job integrating these other immigrant groups.
I don't expect that this answer, or any of these, is wholly satisfactory. But I hope they are a start.