PROMISES, PROMISES, REDUX. Last night I promised that I would post something on the distinction between the legal and moral arguments against affirmative action. Then I discovered the Grutter briefs online (thanks to How Appealing) and I decided to start posting about those.
Now I'm caught in between two projects, both of which could take the better part of a week to finish. However, I've decided to go ahead and start sketching out what I think the differences between the moral and legal arguments against affirmative action are, and why I think they are important.
This is tentative, meant to suggest as much as it is to persuade. So, please, email me with comments, criticisms and suggestions.
Premise: There is an identifiable and significant difference between legal and moral arguments against affirmative action.
Definition 1: the moral argument against affirmative action centers on the colorblindness principle, as outlined and adroitly defended by Discriminations, among others.
Definition 2: the legal argument against affirmative action arises from an affirmative action policy's inability to meet the strict scrutiny (compelling state interest/narrowly-tailored) test.
Portions of the Argument. Would start something like this . . . in order to argue that the Fourteenth Amendment or the Constitution itself mandates colorblindness, one would have to identify historical, textual, structural, doctrinal, ethical and prudential support. History, with all respect to Judge McConnell, is suspect. The text is ambiguous (what does 'equal protection of the laws mean? does it mean what it did in 1870 or 2003?). Structure isn't particularly useful. The doctrine -- when read from the 1870s forward -- is muddled. And ethics and prudence, the most capacious of the constitutional modalities, just encourage us to fall back to the same sort of moral arguments that we started with.
What got me started thinking about this is Discriminations railing against the "legacy admissions" fallacy -- those supporting affirmative action who argue against its abollition (especially the President's involvement) on the grounds that legacy admissions are just as bad. As a legal matter, John is right, this argument is easy to demolish: race is a protected class, family-history is not. But as a counter to the moral argument against affirmative action the "legacy" charge may have more traction: if the moral issue is about treating people equally and fairly, why tolerate someone receiving preferential treatment based on how much his parents make? I suppose one could argue that racial classifications are more pernicious than familial ones, but since we are arguing morally, and thus freed from the current legal doctrine, those of us supporting affirmative action can respond: well, a classification that reinforces the sorts of social hierarchies that led to these problems in the first place is hardly a more desirable than an attempt to rectify the ongoing injuries of race relations in this country. (To which there are responses, I know. I'm not trying to resolve it all this afternoon).
Is there a connection between the moral and legal arguments against affirmative action? Sure--at some point the Court has to figure out what sorts of things count as "compelling state interests," which might include some sort of moral consideration. Of course, that just leads down another rabbit hole: how does the Court figure out what a compelling state interest is? I remember reading somewhere that it was when the proposed state action violated some "basic constitutional norm." OK, but when has colorblindness ever been a constitutional norm for us? It's been desired by some (many) (most) (all) people, but I can't think of a time where I would saddle it with the weight of a "norm," nor what evidence I could gather in support of that claim. (See text, history, etc. above).
Why (again) is this important? Because supporters of affirmative action are often caught fighting with only half their arsenal. Arguments against affirmative action proceed along two parallel but distinct lines, and in our responses to them we shouldn't feel guilty about responding along the same, i.e., both, lines.
My questions amid the rambling aren't rhetorical, they are real. And I would be the first to admit that this is not "my" area of constitutional law (at least to the extent I have an area). So another plea: tell me what I'm missing, who I should be reading, what I should be considering. And if I've inadvertantly plagarized or reiterated someone else's arguments, I'm sorry.
Now I'm caught in between two projects, both of which could take the better part of a week to finish. However, I've decided to go ahead and start sketching out what I think the differences between the moral and legal arguments against affirmative action are, and why I think they are important.
This is tentative, meant to suggest as much as it is to persuade. So, please, email me with comments, criticisms and suggestions.
Premise: There is an identifiable and significant difference between legal and moral arguments against affirmative action.
Definition 1: the moral argument against affirmative action centers on the colorblindness principle, as outlined and adroitly defended by Discriminations, among others.
Definition 2: the legal argument against affirmative action arises from an affirmative action policy's inability to meet the strict scrutiny (compelling state interest/narrowly-tailored) test.
Portions of the Argument. Would start something like this . . . in order to argue that the Fourteenth Amendment or the Constitution itself mandates colorblindness, one would have to identify historical, textual, structural, doctrinal, ethical and prudential support. History, with all respect to Judge McConnell, is suspect. The text is ambiguous (what does 'equal protection of the laws mean? does it mean what it did in 1870 or 2003?). Structure isn't particularly useful. The doctrine -- when read from the 1870s forward -- is muddled. And ethics and prudence, the most capacious of the constitutional modalities, just encourage us to fall back to the same sort of moral arguments that we started with.
What got me started thinking about this is Discriminations railing against the "legacy admissions" fallacy -- those supporting affirmative action who argue against its abollition (especially the President's involvement) on the grounds that legacy admissions are just as bad. As a legal matter, John is right, this argument is easy to demolish: race is a protected class, family-history is not. But as a counter to the moral argument against affirmative action the "legacy" charge may have more traction: if the moral issue is about treating people equally and fairly, why tolerate someone receiving preferential treatment based on how much his parents make? I suppose one could argue that racial classifications are more pernicious than familial ones, but since we are arguing morally, and thus freed from the current legal doctrine, those of us supporting affirmative action can respond: well, a classification that reinforces the sorts of social hierarchies that led to these problems in the first place is hardly a more desirable than an attempt to rectify the ongoing injuries of race relations in this country. (To which there are responses, I know. I'm not trying to resolve it all this afternoon).
Is there a connection between the moral and legal arguments against affirmative action? Sure--at some point the Court has to figure out what sorts of things count as "compelling state interests," which might include some sort of moral consideration. Of course, that just leads down another rabbit hole: how does the Court figure out what a compelling state interest is? I remember reading somewhere that it was when the proposed state action violated some "basic constitutional norm." OK, but when has colorblindness ever been a constitutional norm for us? It's been desired by some (many) (most) (all) people, but I can't think of a time where I would saddle it with the weight of a "norm," nor what evidence I could gather in support of that claim. (See text, history, etc. above).
Why (again) is this important? Because supporters of affirmative action are often caught fighting with only half their arsenal. Arguments against affirmative action proceed along two parallel but distinct lines, and in our responses to them we shouldn't feel guilty about responding along the same, i.e., both, lines.
My questions amid the rambling aren't rhetorical, they are real. And I would be the first to admit that this is not "my" area of constitutional law (at least to the extent I have an area). So another plea: tell me what I'm missing, who I should be reading, what I should be considering. And if I've inadvertantly plagarized or reiterated someone else's arguments, I'm sorry.
